I would like some friendly debate on this issue of
kenites and the races.
Generally, I don't like debates. If the point is
to "win," it becomes a game. I engage in many discussions with
people which might be considered debate. I doubt they could be
considered anything else, because they are mostly for the
benefit of people that might read my website. Believe it or not,
I don't like arguing. I am interested in finding out truth, if
you have specific information that can legitimately be
considered accurate, I will agree with you. If I make factual
statements I expect you to address them, or I will suspect you
are intentionally wasting my time. My detailed response here is
the measure of my goodwill towards you. As a fellow believer in
Jesus Christ, my every expectation for you is only good.
I have a scientific background,
Since you mention this, I must ask what,
specifically, that scientific background is. Mentioning that
you have a scientific background is a minor appeal to
authority. Whether you intend or not, there is a suggestion
that you have special training or knowledge that gives you
greater insight into the subject of science over someone like me
who has no formal scientific training other than what I received
in High School and can make no claims to the authority of a
"scientific background." What small scientific knowledge I have
obtained has been obtained as a lay person with some significant
scientific interest.
once a strong believer in evolution and then my
scientific revelations and my journey back to creationism.
Creationism is a loaded term, it can mean a lot
of things to a lot of people. I could guess at your brand of
creationism, but I don't think it will be important in this
discussion. I accept evolution and creation. Evolution insofar
as it is backed up by science, and creation insofar as it is in
truth. Many people believe in Jesus with no significant
understanding of Christianity. And many people believe in
evolution with no significant understanding of evolution.
So, believing now, that the laws of nature are of divine
design, my perspective regarding this issue is strongly
influenced by my science training.
I see the two issues as completely disconnected.
There will either be a debate over science, or a debate over
faith. I generally keep the two separate. They may confirm the
same facts, but the information is derived by two totally
different methods and is not reliably interchangeable.
Romans 10:6 But the righteousness which is of
faith speaketh on this wise, Say not in thine heart, Who shall
ascend into heaven? (that is, to bring Christ down from above:)
7 Or, Who shall descend into the deep? (that is, to bring up
Christ again from the dead.)
8 But what saith it? The word is nigh thee, even in thy mouth,
and in thy heart: that is, the word of faith, which we preach;
I do not look for the righteousness which is of
faith in the stars, nor under the earth. The greatest truth is
found in the person of Christ and in the power of His
resurrection, that is where my faith lies.
We know that God's plan for mankind was not only
inspired and written, but he also placed his design and plans
into the universe as well, ie the constellations and into the
very nature of the physical laws that governs his creations.
Yes, but the degree to which we can trust our
interpretation of those designs is very small indeed.
The word of God and the laws of his creation cannot be
antagonistic in their relationship, otherwise the specter of
hypocrisy and doubt arises.
When Christ walked on water, was that not
antagonistic to the supposed "laws" of nature? What we call laws
might better be considered, "generally accepted consistencies."
I can think of a half a dozen things from the bible, just off
the top of my head, which are antagonistic to the supposed laws
of nature. As a former Agnostic (?), you must know about these
antagonistic episodes which are recorded in the bible, these are
often the things that unbelievers scoff at due to the very
antagonistic nature of the events to the supposed "laws" of
creation.
In regards to the single origin of mankind, it would be
extremely easy to prove this point scientifically,
That would be incorrect. It is not easy to
"prove." For example, the mitochondrial Eve theory has been
very popular, but is based on probabilities, not proof. The
overwhelming weight of scientific evidence tends to affirm that
humanity is ultimately a single family. I suggest you read the
following article: Understanding Human Genetic Variation
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK20363/ I will repeat
the link later.
every race would have to have every genetic combination
of every other race, meaning the physical attributes of the
asian race would have to be inherited in the african race.
This is incorrect. I want to double that and say
this very strongly. What you wrote there is scientifically
wrong. The differences observed between races are the result of
the loss of genetic information. When populations spread out,
and become isolated, genes present in the larger population may
not be present in the isolated population. Further, over time,
mutations, drift, and other factors such as selective breeding
can lead to certain traits becoming lost in an isolated
population.
When new dog breeds are developed. When you put
a pair of purebred Shetland sheepdogs together, there is
no chance of getting any related breed, such as a German
shepherd, to appear. Even though both were bred from the same
ancient domestic stock, you cannot make vanished genetic traits
reappear in a population that no longer possesses them. You
might get dogs that deviate from the ideal for the breed, but
you don't get purebred German shepherds from purebred Shetland
sheep dogs, ever. Isolated populations do not carry all the
genes of the total population.
I'm going to be direct with you. I want to be as
friendly as I can in saying this, but I acknowledge it is not a
very friendly sounding statement. The above statement
leaves me with no doubt that, whatever your scientific
background was, it had nothing to do with genetics. Your
primary assertion is wrong and all statements subsequent to it
are misapplications of a partial understanding of genetics. I
will demonstrate this in detail.
What does that mean in Genetics, for example, if a white
rabbit and a black rabbit has four offspring, one baby rabbit
would be white, one baby rabbit would be black and two baby
rabbits would be the combination of the dominate and recessive
genes of white and black.
That is not correct. There would be a percentage
chance for each of the possibilities. There would not be any
fixed outcome as the wording you used implies (which you may not
have implied, but the wording stands incorrect). For example:
they might all come out black, or they might all come out
white. The breakdown you gave is only based on probability.
For example, both my wife and I carry the recessive gene for
blue eyes, I know this because both our mothers had blue eyes.
But, of our 7 children, none have blue eyes, even though
they each had a 25% chance of getting blue eyes. Some of them
may carry the recessive gene for blue eyes, but we have no way
of knowing.
If you put a black and white person in the same
situation, you may get a similar result. And, in fact, the
grandchildren of black and white pairs (both of whom appeared to
be black) have been documented to be able to produce both a
fully black child, and a blue eyed blonde haired child. There
is a documented case I can refer you to. But when isolated
populations come back together and lost genetic information is
restored to the gene pool, you can (and do) get white babies
from black parents.
But this argument is based on the fallacy of
false equivalence. The issue here is not what happens when you
mix blacks and whites, but where do blacks and whites come from
in the first place. It is not equivalent because the
process that brings about black and white rabbits in the
first place is entirely different form the process you
describe which is what can happen when one reintroduces once
isolated populations to each other.
That has be reproduced over and over again, making it a
scientific fact, which is a theory that can be currently
observable and reproducible.
To the extent that those are probabilities and
not certainties, insofar as dominant and recessive genes go,
that is true. But you have misapplied the facts of one case to
an entirely different case.
Now bearing in mind that if every race was produced by
the the same genetic material, that in every race, an asian
variance, an african variance, an indian variance, an caucsian
variance, etc would appear on it's own accord without the
introduction of a different strain of genetic material.
Once a population becomes isolated and the
genetic material which causes certain variations is lost or
altered, those variations cannot recur without the
reintroduction of the lost genetic variation.
Using dogs again. Many dog breeds have known
lineages. Once the desired traits have been isolated in a
population, one cannot get dogs which are generations removed
from their ancestors to reproduce the breeds from which the new
breed was derived. Not without introducing dogs who carry the
lost genetic traits which the group of origin possessed.
Another example, a population of blue-eyed
people will never produce a brown-eyed person even though you
could create a population of blue-eyed persons directly from a
population of 100% brown-eyed persons (who can carry the
recessive gene).
That example, in addition to the fact that your
assertion is based on a false equivalence, completely nullifies
your argument regarding the Indian, Asian, Caucasian variance.
Caucasians can't make black people because they no longer
possess the genetic material to produce a black person, but
this does not prove that black and whites are not descended form
the same population.
I return to my group of blue-eyed people to
reinforce my argument. We have a population of brown eyed
persons, each carrying the recessive blue eyed gene. They
create a generation of children. We separate those children
based on eye color. Blue-eyes with blue eyes, brown eyes with
brown eyes. The blue eyed group will never produce a brown
eye. The brown eyed group may keep producing a few blue-eyed,
but if we keep taking every blue eyed person out of the group,
after several generations, eventually they will cease to produce
any blue-eyed offspring and due to the lack of the recessive
gene may become be unable to produce blue eyes. This example
more closely resembles the situation with races than your
example, though it is not a perfect analogy because the
situation is more complicated.
That is the law of genetics, dominate gene versus
recessive gene traits.
You have over-simplified the situation and this
has lead to your misinterpretation of the facts.
But yet, we do not observe that natural occurrence, in
an asian family if they have at least four or more children, one
of those would display none asian traits such as, dark skin,
broad nose, blue eyes, blond hair, etc, without the specific
introduction of that genetic material.
Again, your example is not equivalent to the
situation you described. If you have white rabbits breed, you
will get white rabbits. you get similar results with people.
But here the elephant in the room: Where do
white rabbits come from in the first place? Where do blue
Budgerigars come from? In nature, every budgie is green. I've
studied budgies because I owned several, I suggest that you look
into the history of budgies.
You are making connections based on an incomplete
understanding of genetics. I again strongly suggest you read
the following article: Understanding Human Genetic Variation
http://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK20363/
You have come to me explicitly appealing
to science. That article is science, and science does not agree
nor support the way you have applied the scientific facts you
have misused to support your argument.
So by the observance of God's natural laws, it would
seem unlikely that the every race descended from one genetic
donor.
(Again, there are no natural "laws." God is not
a lawbreaker. We only suppose them to be "laws." God has made
the world very consistent, but the observed consistencies have
never been proven to be laws of God, nor can be.)
The bible says this:
Acts 17:26 And hath made of one blood all
nations of men for to dwell on all the face of the earth,
and hath determined the times before appointed, and the
bounds of their habitation;
God did indeed intend for their to be races,
he is the one that separated them, but they all come of
ONE (I acknowledge that the word "blood" is not present
in the best texts, but "blood" is not a necessary factor,
one means ONE.) One man, one flesh, one lineage of man.
You have misused the scientific facts. You have
not used the bible to support your claim (but I have used it to
support my own). But both science and the word of God agree in
this case that all humanity comes from the same genetic
population.
Science is not what you personally interpret to
be true based on partial understanding and misapplication of
certain facts. Science is a general consensus based on research
and peer review, and the scientists who work in the field of
genetics would absolutely tell you that you are wrong in your
application of the facts.
As far as the kenite issue, even the dictionary says the
word kenite is derived from the word Cain.
This is also an illogical argument based on
several assumptions which cannot be supported by facts.
1) There was only one man ever named Cain. A
presumption.
2) The fact that one name is derived from another
proves that the people so named must have descended from the
other.(i.e. Because Kenites means sons of Cain, the Kenites
spoken of later in the bible must have descended from the Cain
of Genesis 4)
3) Because a people are called "Kenites" that
must mean they are descended from Cain. Next you use the
residency argument in support of your position. But according
to the above logic, If they are called "Jews" they must be
descended from Judah. And then Hell's Angel's, must also be
just as their name implies. But it is not so.
The teachings were never that the Kenites are Jews
biologically but rather they have assumed the Jewish state by
residency, just like I am of German origin, but I call myself an
American, because that is where I reside.
I don't understand what this is supposed to
signify, because it seems to be in refutation of a point that
has not been made.
The idea is that the Kenites are the people
"everyone" thinks of as (or calls) Jews. The idea is that the
people widely understood to be the children of Abraham by family
descent (the people called Jews) were actually supplanted by a
family descended from Satan via Cain.
It is a red herring to make the residency
argument at this point because it does not address the core
issue of whether such a replacement actually occurred. You've
got your cart in front of your horse. In a passage widely used
to support the Kenite argument, Jesus Christ himself affirms
that those whom he said were "of their father the devil" were
indeed the seed of Abraham.
John 8:37 I know that ye are Abraham's seed; but
ye seek to kill me, because my word hath no place in you.
They were the carnal offspring of Abraham, but
spiritually the children of Satan. Just as Cain was carnally the
offspring of Adam (as the bible specifically describes) but was
"of that wicked one," due to the nature of his deeds and the
evil in his heart. Later, when Jesus tells them they are "of
the Devil," it is in direct response to the fact that they
claimed that GOD was their father. That means that the
conversation has gone from a carnal application to a spiritual
application. I will demonstrate this clearly.
John 8:41 Ye do the deeds of your father. Then
said they to him, We be not born of fornication; we have one
Father, even God.
42 Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye
would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither
came I of myself, but he sent me.
43 Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot
hear my word.
44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your
father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and
abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When
he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and
the father of it.
I know that Ye are Abraham's seed, affirms their
carnal descent. They then claim to be the children of
God, (this can safely be presumed to be meant "spiritually")
and in response to that assertion, Jesus tells them they are the
children of the devil.
By the way, when people introduce the red
herring, "who was the first murderer?" here, they are ignoring
the fact that Jesus here is claiming that SATAN was a murderer.
To insert Cain into this passage is begging the question and
ignoring Jesus Christ's intended meaning, a very bad practice.
People, regardless of their ethnicity, who accept Jesus
Christ as their savior are the adopted children of Abraham, not
his biological children, they fall under the promises of the
covenant between God and Abraham.
This is a mixture of ideas. But none of these
are related to the question of whether or not the Kenite
doctrine is actually true. You would have to elaborate on this
issue and make a point directly for some idea you support or
against something I assert for me to be able to respond. I
don't believe in the Kenite doctrine, so the side question of
"can a Kenite be saved" is a red herring to me and totally
irrelevant.
I will say this, that a "tare" cannot be saved.
Tares are to be burned. If you equate Kenites with tares, then
you have a contradiction to deal with, so I certainly understand
why you would assert what you said. But tares are for burning
and nothing else, they don't magically turn into wheat any more
than a population of blue-eyed people will turn out a brown'ed.
So the parable of the tares must not have anything to do with
Kenites or any other race. The parable's meaning is governed
by the facts about carnal things, but the application is
spiritual. I suggest you listen to my study in Matthew 13
http://oraclesofgod.org/studies/40_Matthew/Matthew.html
It is easy to take someone out of context, if they
misspoke, we all do at times, that is the part of the human
nature.
I suppose that is how people come up with
doctrines like the doctrine of the Kenites. They take certain
passages of the bible out of context in order to affirm
unbiblical ideas. That is why I have taken great care to answer
you. You see how I took John 8 in context? I tell you the
truth, anyone who teaches the Kenite doctrine, takes Christ, in
John 8, out of context.
So explain to me what the sin in the Garden of Eden was,
I mean specifically.
You make that sound so difficult, but it is so
simple, even a child could understand it. The sin in the garden
was disobedience. It could be nothing else. God said, "Thou
shalt not eat." and they ate. That is simple disobedience.
God gave no commandment regarding sex with serpents. So even if
they did have sex with the devil (a highly speculative
assertion) it would not have been a sin, since they were given a
commandment not to eat of a particular tree. Do you suppose
that there is a child in the world who could read Genesis and
report that Adam and Eve had sex with the devil? Did you
realize that Adam is in Cain's genealogy?
Genesis 4
1 And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived, and bare Cain,
and said, I have gotten a man from the LORD.
I consider that verse to be a simple vision
test. If one cannot read that verse and understand that the
result of the sexual union of Adam and Eve was Cain, that is
blindness indeed. "...the sleight of men, and cunning
craftiness, whereby they lie in wait to deceive." That is what
I think of the methods of those who teach otherwise.
What about the context? Verses 2-16 are
parenthetical. Chapter 4 is the genealogy of Cain, pick it up
in verse 17.
17 And Cain knew his wife; and she conceived, and
bare Enoch: and he builded a city, and called the name of the
city, after the name of his son, Enoch
And Adam knew Eve his wife; and she conceived,
and bare Cain
And Cain knew his wife; and she
conceived, and bare Enoch:
I detect a pattern.
Thanks,